Proof. Assume that \mathbb{R} and \mathbb{Q} are isomorphic. Then there exists a mapping
\begin{align*}
\phi: \mathbb{Q} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}\begin{align*}
\phi(q)^2 = \phi(q^2) = x = \phi(2).
\end{align*}\begin{align*}
\phi: \mathbb{Q} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}\begin{align*}
\phi(q)^2 = \phi(q^2) = x = \phi(2).
\end{align*}